Dear Francois,

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Am currently preparing my PMP exam (planned tomorrow) by using the PM Exam Simulator, and have come across a question for which I do not understand the answer... (question ID: 25170)

In the explanation it states that a CV of +5'000 means we need to spend 6'000 to achieve a 1'000 benefit. Isn't it the other way around? Or is the explanation related to a negative CV? (the run chart in the question shows positive CV)

Could you please help with ensuring my understanding is correct?

Thanks.